Quote:
Originally posted by manker@29 July 2004 - 22:39
'Oppression - People of being kept down by unjust use of force or authority'
The 1965 example of means testing is certainly oppression.
Why? because it is depriving a section of the populus the basic right to vote.
Now consider applying the same situation today, where everyone had to take a means test. What about the single mother who is bringing up a disabled child, she won't have any time to pore over manifestos. No, she will look for each party's policy on disability and choose the party which gives her child the best deal because that is the most important thing to her, she cares little of economic policy or military posturing.
And who is to say her method of choosing a political party to support is worse than yours?
Yet your proposed means testing will preclude her from voting because of her lack of knowledge in other areas. She has been oppressed.
There are literally hundreds of examples I could give similar to that one.
By the way, I think you look at the past with rose-tinted spectacles. Back in the day the average voter would have been less informed than those today because of the blanket media coverage we get nowadays.
But let us not detract from the point. The mere notion of means testing a voter is absurd. It would propagate elitism and engender resentment of those oppressed.
Excellent post!! The best I've seen in awhile. ;)